Showing posts with label Technical Assistant. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Technical Assistant. Show all posts

Kerala PSC Technical Assistant (Khadi Board) Solved Paper- Exam Held on 15-03-2016



1.In weft knitting loop length controlled by
(A) Clearing cam
(B) Guard cam
(C) Stitch cam
(D) Raising cam
Correct Answer: (C)

2.A non-ionic dye which is relatively insoluble in water at room temperature
(A) Disperse dye
(B) Vat dye
(C) Sulphur dye
(D) Reaction dye
Correct Answer: (A)

3.Mercerisation of the linen help to minimize the
(A) Decrease in resistance to abrasion
(B) Increase in resistance to abrasion
(C) Decrease in resistance to crease
(D) Increase in resistance to crease
Correct Answer: (A)

4.The type of polymerization used for the production of polyacrylontirile is
(A) Poly condensation
(B) Addition polymerization
(C) Radical addition polymerization
(D) Radical condensation polymerization
Correct Answer: (C)

5.For a 1/3 twill weave,which will take least heald shaft movement
(A) Centre closed shed
(B) Bottom closed shed
(C) Semi open shed
(D) Open shed
Correct Answer: (D)

6.Flex,jute and ramie fibres are belongs to the family of
(A) Leaf fibre
(B) Fruit fibre
(C) Hair fibre
(D) Bast fibre
Correct Answer: (D)

7.In an air jet weaving machine,propelling  force generating for insertion of weft yarn is not depend on the
(A) Strength of yarn
(B) Length of yarn
(C) Diameter of yarn
(D) Velocity of yarn
Correct Answer: (A)

8.In finishing process combination of nitrogen and phosphorus compounds used for
(A) Water proofing
(B) Anti microbial agent
(C) Flame retardant
(D) Antistatic agent
Correct Answer: (C)

9.Thinnest yarn fault in classimat among the following is
(A) D-4
(B) B
(C) H-1
(D) 1-2
Correct Answer: (D)

10.Pressure  bar provided in a draw frame drafting for
(A) Reduce the pressure on the fibre assembly within drafting zone
(B) Reducing the drafting  wave
(C) Increasing the uniformity of silver
(D) Increasing the pressure on the fibre assembly within the drafting zone
Correct Answer: (A)

11.Most of the seed coat particles are removed effectively in
(A) Carding
(B) Blow room
(C) Comber
(D) Spinning
Correct Answer: (A)

12.Which of the following yarn is finest?
(A) 10 Ne
(B) 10 Tex
(C) 100 Ne
(D) 100 Tex
Correct Answer: (B)

13.The fibre which has a mineral origin
(A) Asbestos
(B) Silk
(C) Flex
(D) Acrylic
Correct Answer: (A)

14.The difference between the cost price and selling price
(A) MRP
(B) Mark up
(C) Market price
(D) Profit
Correct Answer: (B)

15.The operation of twisting of long silk filament yarn called
(A) Degumming
(B) Weighting of silk
(C) Throwing of silk
(D) Winding of silk
Correct Answer: (C)

16.Stifling of silk is the process of
(A) Cocoons placed in 1% soap solution at 900 C
(B) Grading of cocoons for good quality
(C) Unwinding long continuous yarn from the cocoons
(D) Killing moth inside the cocoons by a steam or hot water
Correct Answer: (D)

17.Design used for denim fibre
(A) 3/1 twill
(B) 1/2 twill
(C) 2/2 twill
(D) 1/3 twill
Correct Answer: (A)

18.A silk fabric constructed with a weft sateen figure on a warp satin or twill or plain ground called
(A) Brocade
(B) Georgette
(C) Muslin
(D) Damask
Correct Answer: (D)

19.Which is not a function of geo textile?
(A) Separation
(B) Filtration
(C) Drainage
(D) Protection
Correct Answer: (D)

20.The fibres not used for the production of military protective clothing
(A) Aramids
(B) Kevlar
(C) Carbon fibres
(D) Polyurethane
Correct Answer: (D)

21.The most suitable weave for  ballistic protective clothing is
(A) Plain weave
(B) Satin weave
(C) Twill weave
(D) Basket weave
Correct Answer: (A)

22.What are the primary colours in pigment theory?
(A) Red,Green Blue
(B) Yellow,Green,Blue
(C) Blue,Yellow,Red
(D) Red,Yellow,Blue
Correct Answer: (D)

23.The weave that produce longitudinal warp line in the cloth with fine sunken lines in between is called
(A) Repp weave
(B) Pique
(C) Bedford cord
(D) Twill weave
Correct Answer: (C)

24.Function of positive feed in knitting is
(A) Yarn tension compensating device
(B) To alter the stitch length
(C) Regulate the amount of yarn feed
(D) Minimizing the yarn waste
Correct Answer: (C)

25.If the needle is not raised and does not receive the new feed yarn,a loop form called
(A) Knit loop
(B) Tuck loop
(C) Held loop
(D) Miss loop
Correct Answer: (D)

26.In a carding machine wire points arranged in opposite direction and move same direction with different speed;the action called
(A) Carding
(B) Stripping
(C) Dofting
(D) Drafting
Correct Answer: (A)

27.State the function of presser
(A) To close the beard
(B) To close the latch
(C) To give return movement to the needle
(D) To assist the guard cam
Correct Answer: (A)

28.Define sinker loop
(A) A loop in which the  same thread crosses over itself
(B) Length of yarn placed over the needle
(C) The yarn connect two adjacent needle loop
(D) The upper part of the loop produced by the needle
Correct Answer: (C)

29.Amount of water used for the insertion of weft in water jet loom
(A) 5-9 cc/pick
(B) 1-4 cc/pick
(C) 0.1-0.4 cc/pick
(D) 0.5/0.9 cc/pick
Correct Answer: (D)

30.State the function of swing door mechanism
(A) Regulate the feed cotton
(B) Regulate the speed of beater
(C) Pre-opening of cotton
(D) Blending of fibres
Correct Answer: (A)

31.The function of weft brake in projectile weaving machine is
(A) To stop the projectile
(B) Holding weft supply package
(C) For guiding yarn on weft accumulator drum
(D) Applies tension to weft yarn at appropriate time
Correct Answer: (D)

32.A defect caused by hardened fluff or foreign matter into the fabric is called
(A) Goat
(B) Ditry cloth
(C) Patchiness
(D) Reediness
Correct Answer: (A)

33.A loom truly termed ‘automatic’ must have the following mechanisms in addition to the essential mechanism
(A) Weft stop motion,warp stop motion and weft replenishment motion
(B) Well stop motion,weft replenishment motion and positive warp let-off motion
(C) Weft replenishment motion,positive take-up motion
(D) Positive warp let-off motion,warp stop motion and weft replenishment motion
Correct Answer: (D)

34.The cause for nep formation in blow room
(A) Too high or low beater speed
(B) High variation of trash in different cotton varieties in mixing
(C) Uneven feeding of material to the feeder
(D) Inadequate or high calendar roller pressure
Correct Answer: (A)

35.Place many number of plies of fabric one over other and aligned length and width of fabric together is called
(A) Pattern matching
(B) Cloth alignment
(C) Pattern loading
(D) Spreading
Correct Answer: (D)

36.Function of feed dog in sewing machine
(A) Control the length of stitch
(B) Hold the cloth firmly in stitching position
(C) Help to move the cloth forward while sewing
(D) Hold the thread in position from  spool
Correct Answer: (C)

37.Dugdales terry motion working on the principle of
(A) Insertion of wire picks
(B) Loose reed principle
(C) Fast reed principle
(D) By acting take up motion
Correct Answer: (B)

38.Two or more shuttle boxes fitted with both end of loom called
(A) Multiple box looms
(B) Pick at will looms
(C) Non skip box looms
(D) Circular box looms
Correct Answer: (B)

39.Find the calculated production of plain loom running with 160 RPM,40 pick/inches with an efficiency of 75%
(A) 3 inches/minute
(B) 3 inches/hour
(C) 4 inches/minute
(D) 5 inches/minute
Correct Answer: (C)

40.Warp yarns of one shed line do not cross all the yarns of other shed line at the same time.This is called
(A) Staggering of healds
(B) Balancing of healds
(C) Warp easing of healds
(D) Balancing of shed
Correct Answer: (A)

41.A centre weft fork motion
(A) Check presence of weft in alternate picks
(B) Check presence of weft in every picks
(C) Used for the production of heavy duty fabric
(D) Stops the loom when a end breaks
Correct Answer: (B)

42.The function of check strap is
(A) To control the picking force
(B) Decrease the momentum of picker
(C) Destroying the momentum of shuttle  entered in shuttle box
(D) To protect the buffer and the picker inside the shuttle box
Correct Answer: (C)

43.In dwell of tappet period means
(A) Loom will remain stationary
(B) Health with remain stationary
(C) Healds are level and beat up starts
(D) Healds are begin to move for shed
Correct Answer: (B)

44.Temperature of the size in a sow box for cotton sizing
(A) 85+-5C
(B) 98 5C
(C) 92 2C
(D) 100 2C
Correct Answer: (C)

45.Primary ingredients in sizing are
(A) Adhesives,softeners,antistatic agents
(B) Lubricants,antistatic agents
(C) Delinquescent,softeners,lubricants
(D) Adhesives,softeners,antiseptic agents
Correct Answer: (D)

46.In apirn winding machine function of layer locking device is
(A) Control diameter of pirn
(B) Give proper tension
(C) Improve prin stability
(D) Locking the bunch of yarn
Correct Answer: (C)

47.The main advantage of splicing is
(A) More strength in joints
(B) Uniform diameter of yarn
(C) Easy to handle
(D) Higher production in winding
Correct Answer: (B)

48.In a drum winding machine
(A) Package RPM is decreases empty to full
(B) Coils per traverse is constant
(C) Produce close winding package
(D) Package RPM constant empty to full
Correct Answer: (A)

49.In winding two and a half turn fully accelerated drum means
(A) Drum grove make 2.5 turn around the drum from one end to the other
(B) Drum lays more yarn on the base than nose
(C) The base of cone increases as package size increases
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)

50.When succeeding coils are widely spaced on the package,it is known as
(A) Close winding
(B) Open winding
(C) Cheese winding
(D) Automatic winding
Correct Answer: (B)

51.In a right hand dobby first pick is controlled by
(A) Straight feeler and top hook
(B) Bend feeler and top hook
(C) Straight feeler bottom hook
(D) Bend feeler and bottom hook
Correct Answer: (D)

52.Normal clearance in a parallel blade slub catcher for carded counts
(A) 1 to 1.5 time of yarn diameter
(B) 1.5 to 2 times of yarn diameter
(C) 2 to 2.5 times of yarn diameter
(D) 2.5 to 3 times of yarn diameter
Correct Answer: (B)

53.Advantage of swinging blade type slub catcher over fixed blade
(A) Clearing 50% more fault
(B) Cheap and easy to maintain
(C) More sensitive to thin places
(D) Slubs can get squeezed and passed through
Correct Answer: (B)

54.Advantage of early shedding is
(A) Less power consumption
(B) Heavy wefting
(C) Less strain in warp
(D) Useful for light weight fabric production
Correct Answer: (B)

55.Which one is incidental waste in weaving
(A) Knotting waste
(B) Process waste
(C) Waste from package fault
(D) Waste during changing pirm
Correct Answer: (C)

56.Narrow,bare and dense stripes running along the warp direction of fabric is called
(A) Warp streaks
(B) Weft bar
(C) Missing end
(D) Float
Correct Answer: (A)

57.The depth of reed wire along the direction of warp yarn is known as
(A) Air space
(B) Percentage air space
(C) Wire thickness
(D) Gauge number of reed wire
Correct Answer: (D)

58.Refractometer used for
(A) Measuring stretch in sizing
(B) Determine size pick up
(C) To indicate consistency of solid contents in size past
(D) To measure saw box temperature
Correct Answer: (C)

59.The length and weight unit of Denier English count system
(A) Hank of 840 yards and 1 denier
(B) Hank of 560 yards and 1 denier
(C) Hank of 520 yards and 1 denier
(D) Hank of 560  yards and 1 grains
Correct Answer: (C)

60.Count defined in Denier metric system as the
(A) Number of 9000-meter length units present in one gram
(B) Number of one-gram weight units of yarn present in 9000 meters
(C) Number of 1000 meters length units present in one gram
(D) Number of one-gram weight units of yarn present in 1000 meters
Correct Answer: (B)

61.Heald count in a plain set is
(A) Number of heald eyes per 2 inches across the width
(B) Number of heald eyes per inches across the width
(C) Number of heald eyes per one inch width
(D) Total number of heald eyes present in the heald divided by heald width
Correct Answer: (B)

62.Reed count is the number of dents in two inches in
(A) Radcliff system
(B) Metric system
(C) Brad ford system
(D) Stokport system
Correct Answer: (D)

63.Tachometer used for measuring
(A) Moisture regain
(B) RPM and surface speed
(C) Percentage of elongation
(D) Humidity
Correct Answer: (B)

64.If 200 yards of cotton yarn weigh 2 grams.What is the count in Ne?
(A) 100s
(B) 24s
(C) 45s
(D) 54s
Correct Answer: (D)

65.The calculated count determined from the total length and total weight of different count termed as
(A) Resultant count
(B) Average count
(C) Universal count(tex)
(D) Worsted count
Correct Answer: (B)

66.Find the resultant count of  8s,24s and 12s
(A) 8s
(B) 15s
(C) 4s
(D) 20s
Correct Answer: (C)

67.If 30 Km of cotton yarn is 2.5kg,what is the count in French cotton system?
(A) 6sNf
(B) 12sNf
(C) 24sNf
(D) 8sNf
Correct Answer: (A)

68.Find the range of the following test results Strength in lbs-113,108,124,128,110
(A) 20 lbs
(B) 4 lbs
(C) 15 lbs
(D) 5 lbs
Correct Answer: (A)

69.The whole material available for testing is called
(A) Sample
(B) Population
(C) Specimen
(D) Median
Correct Answer: (B)

70.The ability of a fabric to assume a graceful appearance in use is
(A) Stiffness
(B) Drape
(C) Resilence
(D) Cover
Correct Answer: (B)

71.Fraction of the area of the fabric covered by both warp and weft threads called
(A) Cover factor
(B) Cloth factor
(C) Cloth setting
(D) Cloth cover
Correct Answer: (D)

72.Cover factor calculated from
(A) Threads per inch in the cloth
(B) Ends and picks per inch in the fabric
(C) Threads per inch and count of yarn
(D) End per inch in the fabric
Correct Answer: (C)

73.Uster evenness tester working on
(A) Optical principle
(B) Electronic principle
(C) Capacitance principle
(D) Electromagnetic principle
Correct Answer: (C)

74.Circumference of wrap reel is
(A) 1.5 yards
(B) 3 yards
(C) 1.2 yards
(D) 2.4 yards
Correct Answer: (A)

75.Single thread strength tester of the pendulum type lever working on the principle of
(A) Constant rate of loading
(B) Constant rate of extension
(C) Constant rate of breaking
(D) Inclined plain
Correct Answer: (B)

76.The relation between TPI and yarn count is
(A) TPI=TMx sqrt(count)
(B) Count=TPI/TM
(C) TPI=TM x Count
(D) Count=TPIxTM
Correct Answer: (A)

77.Linters are
(A) Long fibres separated in ginning
(B) Long fibres adheres to cotton seed
(C) Short fibres adheres to cotton seed
(D) Cotton fibre covered with cotton seed
Correct Answer: (C)

78.Fibre quality index is given by the formula
(A) FQI=(Lusm)/(F)
(B) FQI=v(Lusm)/(f)
(C) FQI=%(Lsm)/(Fu)
(D) FQI=x(Fusm)/(L)
Correct Answer: (A)

79.One lea of 20s cotton yarn consists of
(A) 120 Hanks
(B) 120 yards
(C) 120 inches
(D) 120 feets
Correct Answer: (B)

80.Instrument not used for the measurement of bundle strength is
(A) Stelometer
(B) Inston tester
(C) Pressley tester
(D) Arelometer
Correct Answer: (D)

81.Micronaire value is a combination of
(A) Maturity and fibre strength
(B) Fibre length and fineness
(C) Fineness and maturity
(D) Fineness and fibre strength
Correct Answer: (D)

82.Which is a burning characteristic of pure silk?
(A) In flame it melt instantly
(B) Burn,melt slowly when present to the flame
(C) Smells like burning paper
(D) Continuous to burn and melt when away from flame
Correct Answer: (B)

83.What is the corrected count of yarn?
(A) Count of yarn corrected in standard regain
(B) Count of yarn in actual regain
(C) Count of yarn after changing draft wheel
(D) Count of yarn corrected in standard moisture
Correct Answer: (A)

84.A yarn made with irregular profile or construction that differs from single or folded yarn called
(A) Texturised yarn
(B) Fancy yarn
(C) Untwisted yarn
(D) Worsted yarn
Correct Answer: (B)

85.Wool fibre made with a naturally occurring protein
(A) Keratin
(B) Lignin
(C) Sericin
(D) Fibroin
Correct Answer: (A)

86.A small tangled knot of fibre often caused by fibre processing is
(A) Knot
(B) Objectionable fault
(C) Entanglement
(D) Nep
Correct Answer: (D)

87.Average length of Gossypium hirsutum is
(A) 32-40 mm
(B) 13-25 mm
(C) 25-48 mm
(D) 22-24 mm
Correct Answer: (D)

88.The distance between the nip line in relation to the distribution of fibre length within the silver called
(A) Machine setting
(B) Roller setting
(C) Relative roller speed
(D) Draft setting
Correct Answer: (B)

89.Main contributors to thick and thin places in yarns are
(A) Un opened fibre and drafting irregularities
(B) Defective winding process
(C) Presences of large amount of waste percentage in mixing
(D) Poor control of lap weight
Correct Answer: (A)

90.The most important single cause for within bobbin count variation
(A) Incorrect draft and ratchet wheel in fly frame
(B) Poor control of lap weight
(C) Defective draw frame
(D) Bad work practice in ring frame
Correct Answer: (C)

91.Prime cause for excessive stretch in fly frame
(A) Worn out drafting rollers
(B) Incorrect initial position of cone drum belt
(C) Faulty feeding of silver
(D) Incorrect piecing  practice
Correct Answer: (B)

92.Percentage of yarn produced from a given weight of bale cotton
(A) Productivity
(B) Cotton realization
(C) yam realization
(D) Production efficiency
Correct Answer: (C)

93.Common yarn objectionable faults in the fabric are
(A) Slubs and knots
(B) Neps and Hooks
(C) Thin places and neps
(D) Thick places and neps
Correct Answer: (D)

94.Cause for a catastrophic end breaks in spinning
(A) Collision between balloons
(B) Torn apron
(C) Vibrating or out centre spindle
(D) Eccentric drafting rollers
Correct Answer: (A)

95.A periodic check on fractionating efficiency serve
(A) To increase the production in comber
(B) To improve the fibre alignment in comber
(C) Judge the mechanical condition of comber
(D) To reduce the stoppage in combing
Correct Answer: (C)

96.A convenient and reliable method for estimating the loss of efficiency and its causes called
(A) Productivity analysis
(B) Snap reading
(C) Machinery audit
(D) Proftiability analysis
Correct Answer: (B)

97.The ratio of machine production to the labour employment ratio expressed as percentage is
(A) Machine productivity
(B) Labour productivity
(C) Productivity
(D) Productivity index
Correct Answer: (C)

98.A periodic critical examination of machine to identify mechanical condition of various parts and machine setting,which are likely to affect quality and productivity  is called
(A) Periodic maintenance
(B) Preventive maintenance
(C) Quality audit
(D) Machinery audit
Correct Answer: (D)

99.Transfer efficiency of fibres in a carding cylinder decided by
(A) RPM of cylinder
(B) Wire population in doffer
(C) Tooth angle in cylinder
(D) RPM of doffer
Correct Answer: (C)

100.The function of front plate is
(A) To regulate the cleaning efficiency of earding machine
(B) To regulate  the percentage of flat waste
(C) To control the droppings
(D) To regulate the flat speed
Correct Answer: (B)

Kerala PSC Technical Assistant (X-Ray Govt. Ayurveda College) Solved Paper - Exam Held on 22-08-2016



1.On the banks of which river the famous city of Kolata situated?
(A) Indus
(B) Hugely
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Tapti
Correct Answer: B

2.In which the state of India, the Kakrapara project is located?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
Correct Answer: C

3.Which mountain ranges separate North India from the Deccan?
(A) Vindhya-Satpura
(B) The Himalayas
(C) Anamudi
(D) Siwalik
Correct Answer: A

4.How many National Waterways are there in India?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Correct Answer: D

5.The Governor-General of India at the time of the foundation of Indian National Congress?
(A) Chelmsford
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Dufferin
(D) Ripon
Correct Answer: C

6.Which was the only session of Indian National Congress presided by Gandhi?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Guwahati
(C) Belgaum
(D) Kakinada
Correct Answer: C

7.Who was the first to describe the mutiny of 1857 as the first war of Indian Independence?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) V.Savarkar
(C) Romila Taper
(D) Tharachand
Correct Answer: B

8.The founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj?
(A) Atmaram Pandurang
(B) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(C) M.G.Ranade
(D) Jyothiba Phule
Correct Answer: D

9.Who was the president of the Indian National Congress in the Gaya Session of 1922?
(A) C.R.Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Gokhale
(D) Tilak
Correct Answer: A

10.When was the historic temple entry proclamation made?
(A) April 12,1936
(B) November 12,1936
(C) March 12,1936
(D) June 12,1936
Correct Answer: B

11.Who took initiative to form Anthar Jana Samajam at Chettupuzha?
(A) Sreedevi Kannampalli
(B) Uma Alampalli
(C) Kavumkara Bhargavi
(D) Parvathy Nenminimangalam
Correct Answer: D

12.Who is known as the father of Kerala Renaissance?
(A) Kumaran Asan
(B) Sree Narayana Guru
(C) Chattampi Swamikal
(D) V.T.Bhattathiripad
Correct Answer: B

13.Owner of ‘Swadeshabhimani’edited by K.Ramakrishna Pillai?
(A) (C) V.Kunjiraman
(B) K.Kelappan
(C) Dr.Palpu
(D) Vakkom Abdul Khadir Maulavi
Correct Answer: D

14.The Savarna Jatha to support the Vaikkom Satyagraha was organized by
(A) Mannath Padmanabhan
(B) T.K.Madhavan
(C) K.Kelappan
(D) Sahodaran Ayyappan
Correct Answer: A

15.The Malayalee women who attended the International Women’s Conference held at Copenhagen in 1949?
(A) Kamala Nambeesan
(B) Ammu Swaminathan
(C) Arya Pallam
(D) Priyadutta Mullamangalath
Correct Answer: B

16.Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
(A) December 10
(B) January 10
(C) March 10
(D) May 10
Correct Answer: A

17.Operation Protective Edge is the name of which country’s controversial military action launched on its neighborhood?
(A) Syria
(B) Jordan
(C) Iran
(D) Israel
Correct Answer: D

18.Mutual Funds are regulated in India by which among the following ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) Stock Exchange
(D) UTI
Correct Answer: B

19.Who received the Golden Ball award for the best player of the FIFA World Cup 2014?
(A) Microslay Klose
(B) Karim Bensema
(C) Angel D’Maria
(D) Lionel Messy
Correct Answer: D

20.With which game is Davis Cup associated?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Tennis
(D) Hockey
Correct Answer: C

21.Which of the following is not an x-ray interaction with the atoms of absorbing medium?
(A) Photo Electric Edffect
(B) Bremsstrahlung
(C) Pair Production
(D) Compton Effect
Correct Answer: B

22.The target material used in General purpose Radiography x-ray machine is
(A) Tungsten
(B) Copper
(C) Stainless Steel
(D) Aluminium
Correct Answer: A

23.The tilting of anode of a x-ray tube with respect to incident electron axis is
(A) Line Focus Principle
(B) Anode hell effect
(C) Duane Hunt Principle
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

24.The vertical plane passing longitudinally  through the human body,divides the body into right and left halves is termed as
(A) Transverse plane
(B) Coronal Plane
(C) Medial plane
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C

25.The SI unit of electric current is:
(A) Ampere
(B) Coulomb
(B) Farad
(D) Ohm
Correct Answer: A

26.The power loss in a transformer can occur due to
(A) Eddy current
(B) Core loss
(C) Leakage of flux
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

27.Anode of a rotating anode x-ray tube is rotating with the help of
(A) Induction motor
(B) DC Motor
(C) Battery
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

28.The base of an x-ray film is made of
(A) Gadolinium
(B) Gelatin
(C) Silver
(D) Polyester
Correct Answer: D

29.The active ingredient in emulsion of a Radiographic film is:
(A) Silver halide
(B) Cellulose triacetate
(C) Rare earth  materials
(D) Sodium Sulphate
Correct Answer: A

30.X-ray tube rating charts includes
(A) Radiographic rating chart
(B) Anode cooling chart
(C) Housing cooling chart
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

31.The Radiographic grid was first designed by
(A) Bucky
(B) Roentgen
(C) Coolidge
(D) Faraday
Correct Answer: A

32.Waters view is used for the examination of
(A) Ankle
(B) Skull
(C) Maxillary sinuses
(D) Foot
Correct Answer: C

33.The annual equivalent radiation dose limit for radiation workers in India is:
(A) 1 mSv
(B) 20 mSv
(C) 100 mSv
(D) 0.1 mSv
Correct Answer: B

34.The deposition of metallic silver in a radiographic film without exposure to radiation results
(A) Artifacts
(B) Fog
(C) Latitude
(D) Gamma
Correct Answer: B

35.Which of the following component is not connected to the secondary coil of high tension transformer of x-ray generator circuits?
(A) X-ray tube
(B) Rectifier
(C) mA meter
(D) KVp meter
Correct Answer: D

36.The relative ability of radiograph emulsion to respond to x-ray or light is:
(A) Speed
(B) Latitude
(C) Optical density
(D) Contrast
Correct Answer: A

37.Myelogram was the gold standard for the diagnosis of disease of
(A) Neutral canal
(B) Kidney
(C) Heart
(D) Orbit
Correct Answer: A

38.Which of the following is a common cause of x-ray tube failure?
(A) Extremely high voltage
(B) Burnt out filament
(C) Anode melting
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

39.The advantage of CT over MRI is
(A) Lack of artifacts from adjacent bones
(B) Multiplane capabilities
(C) Fine bone details
(D) Soft tissue contrast
Correct Answer: C

40.Molybdenum and rhodium targets are used in ________ x-ray tubes
(A) CT machines
(B) Angiography machines
(C) Mammography
(D) Dental x-rays
Correct Answer: C

41.Movement unsharpness in radiographs are due to
(A) Heart bet
(B) The pulse
(C) Peristalsis
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

42.Empty urinary Bladder require before
(A) Pelvic Ultrasound
(B) CT of Pelvis
(C) Hysterosalpingography
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: C

43.Computed Tomography(CT)machines with two x-ray tubes, two rows of detector, one gantry and one patient table is
(A) Multislice CT machines
(B) Electron Beam CT
(C) Spiral CT
(D) Dual Source CT
Correct Answer: D

44.The upper border sternum is
(A) Supra sterna notch
(B) Acromion
(C) Xiphi sternum
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

45.The blood flow in the circulatory system can be studied using
(A) Doppler techniques
(B) Nuclear magnetic resonance techniques
(C) Tomography techniques
(D) Scintigraphy
Correct Answer: A

46.The only movable bone in the skull is
(A) Frontal bone
(B) Nasal bone
(C) Mandible
(D) Temporal bone
Correct Answer: C

47.Most of the Limb Joints are
(A) Synovial joints
(B) Fibrous joints
(C) Cartilaginous joints
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

48.The lordotic AP projection of chest is use full for evaluating
(A) The carina
(B) Pleural effusion
(C) An apical lesion
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: C

49.The metacarpal bones are:
(A) Four in numbers
(B) Five in numbers
(C) Fourteen in numbers
(D) Two in numbers
Correct Answer: B

50.A normal red blood cell has a life span of:
(A) 365 days
(B) 1 day
(C) 24 days
(D) 120 days
Correct Answer: D

51.Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
(A) Pituitary
(B) Adrenalls
(C) Pancreas
(D) Spleen
Correct Answer: D

52.Bending of knee joint is
(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Abduction
(D) Pronation
Correct Answer: A

53.The patella or knee cap is a
(A) Long bones
(B) Flat bones
(C) Sesamoid bone
(D) Irregular bones
Correct Answer: C

54.Length of adult human spinal cord is around
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 45 cm
(D) 75 cm
Correct Answer: C

55.Blood volume of average adult human being is
(A) 5 Litres
(B) 1 Litre
(C) 10 Litres
(D) 20 Litres
Correct Answer: A

56.Pleura is the membrane covering
(A) Lung
(B) Heart
(C) Brain
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

57.True statement regarding the radiography of cervical spine is
(A) No tube angulations required in the AP view
(B) The tube is angled 5 to 10 degree cephaled
(C) A short focus to film distance required for lateral projection
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
58.Which of the following isotope is not used for permanent implant in brachytherapy?
(A) Gold 198
(B) Iodine 125
(C) Palladium 103
(D) Cesium 137
Correct Answer: D

59.Cobalt 60 radioactive isotope has a half life of
(A) 74 days
(B) 1620 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 5.6 years
Correct Answer: D

60.Which of the following is a beam modifying device used in Radiotherapy?
(A) Phantom
(B) Wedges
(C) Breast Board
(D) Thermoplastic masks
Correct Answer: B

61.Which of the following readiation detectors cannot be used in automatic exposure control(Photo timers)in an x-ray generator system?
(A) Thermolum inesent detector
(B) Photo multiplier detector
(C) Ionization detector
(D) Solid state detector
Correct Answer: A

62.CT number for air is
(A) 0
(B) -1000
(C) 1000
(D) 1
Correct Answer: B

63.The degree of blackening of Radiographic of film is described by
(A) Optical density
(B) Film sensitivity
(C) Film speed
(D) Gamma
Correct Answer: A

64.True statement regarding plain abdominal radiography is
(A) A short exposure time is unnecessary
(B) The lower border of cassette should be positioned at the level of pubis symphysis
(C) Injection of air via nasogastric tube helps in diagnosis of perforation
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: C

65.The Gadolinium-diethyltriamine pents acetic acid(Gd-DTPA)is a
(A) Contrast medium used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(B) Contrast media used for CT imaging
(C) Contrast media used in Fluroscopy
(D) Emulsion used in x-ray films
Correct Answer: A

66.Which of the following is not a Magnetic Resonance Imaging Parameter?
(A) Spin Density
(B) Electron Density
(C) T2 Relaxation Time
(D) T1 Relaxation Time
Correct Answer: B

67.The inherent filtration in an x-ray tube ranges from
(A) 0.5 to 1 mm AL
(B) .001 to 0.01 mm lead
(C) .05 to 1 m lead
(D) 2 to 4 mm Al
Correct Answer: A

68.The added filter used for the radiography of body part of uneven thickness is
(A) Heavy metal filters
(B) Inherent filtration
(C) Wedge filter
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C

69.The magnitude of scattered radiation during radiography depends on
(A) Energy of x-ray
(B) Field size
(C) Thickness of patient
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

70.Grid ratio is the
(A) Ratio of the height of the lead strips to the width of the inter space material
(B) Number of lead strip lines per centimetre
(C) Ratio exposure with grid and without grid
(D) Raio of contrast with and without grid
Correct Answer: A

71.Which of the following is a method of scatter reduction in radiography other than using grid?
(A) Use of collimator
(B) Scanning slit
(C) Air gap method
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

72.In spiral CT scanners
(A) No ring  detectors
(B) Stationary x-ray tube
(C) Patient table stationary
(D) Patient table moving during scanning process
Correct Answer: D

73.A radiation detector not suitable for the use in CT scanner is
(A) Sodium Iodine Detector
(B) Bismuth Germanate Detector
(C) Fricke Detector
(D) Cadmium Tungstate
Correct Answer: C

74.Main advantage of fourth generation CT scanner is
(A) Less patient dose
(B) Elimination of ring artifact
(C) Less scattered radiation
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: B

75.Qunatum mottle is due to
(A) Statistical fluctuation in the number of x-rays emitted from x-ray tube
(B) Patient motion
(C) Absorption of radiation by high density material
(D) Heterogeneous x-ray spectrum
Correct Answer: A

76.CT number of dense bone is
(A) +100
(B) +1000
(C) +55
(D) +35
Correct Answer: B

77.Ring of stationary detectors were introduced in
(A) First generation CT scanners
(B) Second generation CT scanners
(C) Third generation CT scanners
(D) Fourth generation CT scanners
Correct Answer: D

78.Auto transformer works on the principle of
(A) Self induction
(B) Mutual induction
(C) Ohm’s law
(D) Joules law
Correct Answer: A

79.Radioactivity first discovered by
(A) William Conrad Roentgen
(B) Madam Curie
(C) Henry Becquerel
(D) Charles Rutherford
Correct Answer: C

80.X-rays were discovered  in the year
(A) 1985
(B) 1895
(C) 1589
(D) 1986
Correct Answer: B

81.Use of intensifying screen results
(A) Lower patient dose
(B) Increase radiographic contrast
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C

82.In a rotating anode x-ray tube the anode having an Area “A”is tilted to an angle of 10 degree
Then the effective focal area will be
(A) A sin 10
(B) A x 20
(C) A-20
(D) A cos20
Correct Answer: A

83._______is a double emulsion film?
(A) Mammographic film
(B) Duplicating film
(C) Subtraction film
(D) Dental film
Correct Answer: D

84.Which of the following is not used as a phosphor in the intensifying screens used for radiography?
(A) Calcium tungstate
(B) Zinc sulphide
(C) Gadolinium
(D) Aluminium
Correct Answer: D

85.The speed of intensifying screen is affected by
(A) Phosphor composition
(B) Crystal size
(C) Presence of reflective layer
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

86._______is not an ingredient of developing solution
(A) Hydroquinone
(B) Sodium Carbonate
(C) Potassium bromide
(D) Hypo
Correct Answer: D

87.Chrome alum is used as a______in fixer solution
(A) Fixing agent
(B) Preservative
(C) Hardener
(D) Acid medium
Correct Answer: C

88.Which of the following is not a reason for the fog formation in x-ray films?
(A) Exposure to light
(B) Exposure to x-rays or radionuclide
(C) Outdated film
(D) Static electricity due to friction between film and other objects
Correct Answer: D

89.Streaking in x-ray film caused by the following
(A) Bending of film
(B) Failure to agitate the film in developer
(C) Water droplets on the surface of film
(D) Formation of air bubbles in the developer
Correct Answer: B

90.For female patients of reproductive age non urgent abdomen and pelvic radiographs should be taken
(A) Within 10 days following menstrual period
(B) 10 to 20 days interval following menstrual period
(C) 20 to 30 days interval following menstrual period
(D) There is no such restriction
Correct Answer: A

91.Reason for unsharpness in a radiographic image is
(A) Movement
(B) Focal spot size
(C) Use of screen
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D

92.Unequal magnification of different portions of same object in a radiograph is called
(A) Crossover
(B) Distortion
(C) Unsharpness
(D) Fog
Correct Answer: B

93.Most important factor for radiographic contrast is
(A) KVp
(B) mA
(C) mAs
(D) Focus to film distance
Correct Answer: A

94.Anal atresia in Neonates can be diagnosed by
(A) Lateral decubitus view
(B) AP supine
(C) Invertogram
(D) Abdomen AP erect
Correct Answer: C

95.Delineation of contour and cavity of uterus and tubal potency and can be established by
(A) Nephrotomography
(B) Hysteriosalpingography(HSG)
(C) KUB examination
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B

96.Small lesions and mucosal lining are more clearly visible in _______ radiography
(A) Single contrast method
(B) Double contrast method
(C) No contrast
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: B

97.The radiographic examination of choice to demonstrate the whole of the small bowel from duodenal flexture to ileocaceal valve is
(A) Barium Meal Follow through
(B) Hyptonic Dudenography
(C) Conventional barium meal
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A

98.The radiographic investigation of lacrimal system is
(A) Arthography
(B) Cholangiography
(C) Stalography
(D) Dacryocystography
Correct Answer: D

99.The photo cpnductor used in Xeroradiography is
(A) Amorphous Selenium
(B) Sodium Iodine
(C) Calcium Tungstate
(D) Molybdenum
Correct Answer: A

100.Which of the following substance produces Piezo Electric Effect?
(A) Quartz
(B) Gadolium Oxy Sulphide
(C) Sodium Iodide(Thalium Activated Crystals)
(D) Sodium Chloride
Correct Answer: A